Repository: AyemunHossain/ISC2-CC-Dump-Questions-Study-Material Branch: main Commit: aa14934a8ef6 Files: 9 Total size: 129.8 KB Directory structure: gitextract_w2hxke8u/ ├── Dump Questions/ │ ├── 170+ ISC2 CC Dump Questions.md │ ├── 200+ Question Answer Flashcard.md │ └── 70+ Additional dumps.md ├── Exam-voucher.md ├── Most essential topics.md ├── README.md ├── Suggested Another Course.md ├── Suggested Youtube Playlist.md └── practice_exam.md ================================================ FILE CONTENTS ================================================ ================================================ FILE: Dump Questions/170+ ISC2 CC Dump Questions.md ================================================ **Q1:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment? Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources --- **Q2:** What is the main advantage of using a symmetric encryption algorithm over an asymmetric encryption algorithm? Option 1: Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster and more efficient Option 2: Asymmetric encryption algorithms provide better security Option 3: Symmetric encryption algorithms require fewer resources Option 4: Asymmetric encryption algorithms are easier to implement Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster and more efficient --- **Q3:** What is the primary purpose of using digital signatures in cryptographic protocols? Option 1: To encrypt data for secure transmission Option 2: To verify the integrity and authenticity of data Option 3: To generate random cryptographic keys Option 4: To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information Correct Answer: To verify the integrity and authenticity of data --- **Q4:** What security feature is commonly used with HTTPS? Option 1: IPsec Option 2: SSH Option 3: SSL/TLS Option 4: VPN Correct Answer: SSL/TLS --- **Q5:** Which of the following is a characteristic of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)? Option 1: Fully managed applications Option 2: Pay-as-you-go pricing model Option 3: Predetermined software configurations Option 4: Limited scalability options Correct Answer: Limited scalability options --- **Q6:** What is the primary purpose of implementing a disaster recovery plan in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster --- **Q7:** Which device is used to connect WAN to LAN? Option 1: Firewalls Option 2: Router Option 3: Hub Option 4: Switch Correct Answer: Router --- **Q8:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage applications without managing underlying infrastructure? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS) --- **Q9:** An attacker intercepts traffic between a user and a server in order to eavesdrop on sensitive information being transmitted. This is an example of what type of attack? Option 1: On-path Attack Option 2: Spoofing Option 3: Phishing Option 4: Side-channel Correct Answer: On-path Attack --- **Q10:** Which network security measure is used to authenticate and authorize users and devices connecting to a network? Option 1: Virtual Private Network (VPN) Option 2: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Option 3: Network Access Control (NAC) Option 4: Packet Filtering Correct Answer: Network Access Control (NAC) --- **Q11:** Which port is used by the FTP protocol? Option 1: 21 Option 2: 22 Option 3: 23 Option 4: 80 Correct Answer: 21 --- **Q12:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from external networks? Option 1: Username and password Option 2: Biometric authentication Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization) Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) Correct Answer: Username and password --- **Q13:** Which port is commonly used for SSH? Option 1: 22 Option 2: 23 Option 3: 80 Option 4: 443 Correct Answer: 22 --- **Q14:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks --- **Q15:** A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, requesting their login credentials. This is an example of what type of attack? Option 1: Spoofing Option 2: Phishing Option 3: DOS/DDOS Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: Phishing --- **Q16:** Which port is used by the SSH protocol for secure file transfers? Option 1: SFTP Option 2: SCP Option 3: FTPS Option 4: TFTP Correct Answer: SFTP --- **Q17:** What is the purpose of conducting regular tests and exercises of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? Option 1: To minimize resource utilization during normal operations Option 2: To validate the effectiveness of the plan and identify areas for improvement Option 3: To increase profitability of the organization Option 4: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring Correct Answer: To validate the effectiveness of the plan and identify areas for improvement --- **Q18:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q19:** What is the purpose of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? Option 1: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring Option 2: To ensure the organization can continue critical business operations during and after a disaster Option 3: To optimize resource utilization during normal operations Option 4: To increase profitability Correct Answer: To ensure the organization can continue critical business operations during and after a disaster --- **Q20:** Which type of attack involves flooding a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable to legitimate users? Option 1: DOS/DDOS Option 2: Spoofing Option 3: Phishing Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: DOS/DDOS --- **Q21:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Private cloud --- **Q22:** What is the primary goal of cloud access security brokers (CASBs)? Option 1: To provide identity and access management services Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To optimize cloud resource allocation Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q23:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks --- **Q24:** Which encryption protocol is commonly used to secure data transmitted over wireless networks? Option 1: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) Option 2: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) Option 3: TLS (Transport Layer Security) Option 4: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Correct Answer: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) --- **Q25:** How does IPSec protect against replay attacks? Option 1: By encrypting all network traffic Option 2: By using digital signatures Option 3: By using sequence numbers Option 4: By limiting access to the network Correct Answer: By using sequence numbers --- **Q26:** Which cloud deployment model provides a combination of private and public cloud resources? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Hybrid cloud --- **Q27:** Which port is used by the Telnet protocol? Option 1: 23 Option 2: 21 Option 3: 22 Option 4: 80 Correct Answer: 23 --- **Q28:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from external networks? Option 1: Username and password Option 2: Biometric authentication Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization) Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization) --- **Q29:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities --- **Q30:** What is the primary purpose of network segmentation in cloud environments? Option 1: To increase network bandwidth Option 2: To reduce latency for cloud applications Option 3: To isolate sensitive workloads and data from potential threats Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes Correct Answer: To isolate sensitive workloads and data from potential threats --- **Q31:** Which of the following is an example of a registered port? Option 1: Microsoft SQL Server Option 2: RADIUS authentication Option 3: HTTP Option 4: SMB Correct Answer: Microsoft SQL Server --- **Q32:** What is the purpose of implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) in a network? Option 1: To optimize network performance Option 2: To securely connect remote users and devices to a private network over the internet Option 3: To prevent physical access to network devices Option 4: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes Correct Answer: To securely connect remote users and devices to a private network over the internet --- **Q33:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS) --- **Q34:** An organization is experiencing issues with their VPN connection, causing frequent disconnects. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Physical Layer Correct Answer: Transport Layer --- **Q35:** Which cryptographic algorithm is vulnerable to collision attacks and should not be used for generating digital signatures? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Option 4: SHA-256 (Secure Hash Algorithm 256-bit) Correct Answer: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) --- **Q36:** What is the primary purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services --- **Q37:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS) --- **Q38:** Which of the following would be considered an endpoint? Option 1: Software task Option 2: Router Option 3: Firewall Option 4: Laptop Correct Answer: Laptop --- **Q39:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users' devices? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q40:** What is an IPv4 address? Option 1: A 128-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. Option 2: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. Option 3: An address used for internal network use only. Option 4: An address used for documentation purposes only. Correct Answer: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. --- **Q41:** A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, requesting their login credentials. This is an example of what type of attack? Option 1: Spoofing Option 2: Phishing Option 3: DOS/DDOS Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: Phishing --- **Q42:** Which cryptographic attack targets the process of intercepting and altering communication between two parties? Option 1: Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack Option 2: Brute-force attack Option 3: Dictionary attack Option 4: Rainbow table attack Correct Answer: Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack --- **Q43:** Which type of malware encrypts a user's files and demands payment in exchange for the decryption key? a. Ransomware Option 1: Ransomware Option 2: Worm Option 3: Trojan Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: Ransomware --- **Q44:** What security control is used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users' devices? Option 1: Data encryption at rest Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) Option 3: Transport Layer Security (TLS) Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC) Correct Answer: Transport Layer Security (TLS) --- **Q45:** Which component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) identifies critical business functions and the resources required to support them? Option 1: Plan development and testing Option 2: Risk assessment Option 3: Business impact analysis (BIA) Option 4: Plan implementation Correct Answer: Business impact analysis (BIA) --- **Q46:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks --- **Q47:** What is the primary objective of a disaster recovery plan in cloud computing? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster --- **Q48:** What is the primary purpose of using a digital certificate in public key infrastructure (PKI)? Option 1: To encrypt data for secure transmission Option 2: To authenticate the identity of users and devices Option 3: To generate random cryptographic keys Option 4: To prevent buffer overflow attacks Correct Answer: To authenticate the identity of users and devices --- **Q49:** A hacker gains access to a company's network and begins to intercept network traffic in order to steal login credentials. Which OSI layer is being attacked? Option 1: Physical layer Option 2: Data link layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Application layer Correct Answer: Data link layer --- **Q50:** Which security control is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of cloud service providers? Option 1: Service level agreements (SLAs) Option 2: Cloud security certifications Option 3: Encryption protocols Option 4: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Correct Answer: Cloud security certifications --- **Q51:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit in cloud environments? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 3: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q52:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a public cloud deployment model? Option 1: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization Option 2: Limited scalability options Option 3: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations Correct Answer: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations --- **Q53:** At which layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack does a firewall operate? Option 1: Layer 1 Option 2: Layer 2 Option 3: Layer 3 Option 4: Layer 4 Correct Answer: Layer 4 --- **Q54:** What is the primary purpose of using a salt when hashing passwords? Option 1: To add flavor to the password Option 2: To increase the entropy of the hashed passwords Option 3: To make the passwords easier to crack Option 4: To decrease the security of the hashing algorithm Correct Answer: To increase the entropy of the hashed passwords --- **Q55:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud databases? Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM) Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC) --- **Q56:** What protocol is associated with port 53? Option 1: DNS Option 2: SMTP Option 3: HTTP Option 4: HTTPS Correct Answer: DNS --- **Q57:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a ping flood attack? Option 1: Layer 3 Option 2: Layer 4 Option 3: Layer 5 Option 4: Layer 6 Correct Answer: Layer 3 --- **Q58:** What is the potential impact of an IPSec replay attack? Option 1: Unauthorized access to network resources Option 2: Disruption of network communication Option 3: Modification of network traffic Option 4: All of the above Correct Answer: All of the above --- **Q59:** Which security control is used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users' devices? Option 1: Data encryption at rest Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) Option 3: Transport Layer Security (TLS) Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC) Correct Answer: Transport Layer Security (TLS) --- **Q60:** What is the primary goal of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 3: To automate software deployment processes Option 4: To monitor user activities and access patterns Correct Answer: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources --- **Q61:** Which cloud deployment model provides cloud resources exclusively for a specific organization? Option 1: Hybrid cloud Option 2: Public cloud Option 3: Private cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Private cloud --- **Q62:** What is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to network resources Option 2: To increase the speed of data transmission across the network Option 3: To divide a network into smaller subnetworks for improved security and performance Option 4: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes Correct Answer: To divide a network into smaller subnetworks for improved security and performance --- **Q63:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data at rest in cloud storage? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q64:** A user clicks on an attachment in an email that they believe is from a friend, which then installs malicious software on their computer. This is an example of what type of malware? Option 1: Worm Option 2: Virus Option 3: Trojan Option 4: Ransomware Correct Answer: Trojan --- **Q65:** A company has been experiencing network connectivity issues that have been traced to a problem with the cabling. Which OSI layer is affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Physical Layer Correct Answer: Physical Layer --- **Q66:** What is the primary goal of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization --- **Q67:** A hacker uses a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack to flood a company's network with traffic, rendering it unable to function properly. Which OSI layer is being attacked? Option 1: Physical layer Option 2: Data link layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Transport layer Correct Answer: Network layer --- **Q68:** What is the well-known port for SMTP? Option 1: 25 Option 2: 80 Option 3: 443 Option 4: 22 Correct Answer: 25 --- **Q69:** What are registered ports used for? Option 1: Proprietary applications from vendors and developers Option 2: Common protocols at the core of TCP/IP model Option 3: Used for Web servers Option 4: Used for inhouse or opensource applications Correct Answer: Proprietary applications from vendors and developers --- **Q70:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage applications without managing underlying infrastructure? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS) --- **Q71:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a port scanning attack? Option 1: Layer 1 Option 2: Layer 2 Option 3: Layer 3 Option 4: Layer 4 Correct Answer: Layer 4 --- **Q72:** A user reports that they are unable to access a specific website. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Data Link Layer Correct Answer: Application Layer --- **Q73:** What is the primary objective of implementing a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution? Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q74:** Which cloud deployment model provides cloud resources exclusively for a specific organization? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Private cloud --- **Q75:** What is the purpose of a cloud security posture management (CSPM) tool? Option 1: To monitor and enforce compliance with security policies in cloud environments Option 2: To optimize cloud resource allocation Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To monitor and enforce compliance with security policies in cloud environments --- **Q76:** What security control is used to protect data at rest in cloud storage? Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 2: Data encryption Option 3: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 4: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Correct Answer: Data encryption --- **Q77:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q78:** What is the primary goal of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)? Option 1: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring Option 2: To ensure the continuity of critical business operations Option 3: To optimize resource utilization during normal operations Option 4: To increase profitability Correct Answer: To ensure the continuity of critical business operations --- **Q79:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Private cloud --- **Q80:** What protocol is associated with port 80? Option 1: HTTP Option 2: FTP Option 3: SSH Option 4: Telnet Correct Answer: HTTP --- **Q81:** What is the purpose of a virtual private cloud (VPC)? Option 1: To provide dedicated physical servers to customers Option 2: To isolate network traffic within a public cloud environment Option 3: To optimize virtual machine performance Option 4: To enforce strict access controls on cloud resources Correct Answer: To isolate network traffic within a public cloud environment --- **Q82:** What is the primary purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services --- **Q83:** Which security control is used to detect and respond to security incidents in cloud environments? Option 1: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 3: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 4: Data encryption at rest Correct Answer: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) --- **Q84:** What is the primary goal of implementing a disaster recovery plan in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster --- **Q85:** A user reports that they are unable to access a specific website. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Data Link Layer Correct Answer: Application Layer --- **Q86:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack? Option 1: Layer 2 Option 2: Layer 3 Option 3: Layer 4 Option 4: Layer 7 Correct Answer: Layer 3 --- **Q87:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q88:** Which cloud service model provides access to virtualized computing resources over the internet? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 3: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) --- **Q89:** What is the primary goal of implementing role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities --- **Q90:** What is the primary purpose of using encryption at rest in cloud storage? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access Correct Answer: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access --- **Q91:** Which phase of the Business Continuity Planning (BCP) process involves identifying potential risks and threats to an organization's operations? Option 1: Risk assessment Option 2: Business impact analysis Option 3: Plan development and testing Option 4: Plan implementation Correct Answer: Risk assessment --- **Q92:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from external networks? Option 1: Username and password Option 2: Biometric authentication Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization) Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization) --- **Q93:** What is the primary purpose of using network segmentation in a cloud environment? Option 1: To optimize network bandwidth Option 2: To increase network latency Option 3: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes Correct Answer: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes --- **Q94:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage applications without managing underlying infrastructure? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS) --- **Q95:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment? Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources --- **Q96:** Which type of malware encrypts a user's files and demands payment in exchange for the decryption key? Option 1: Ransomware Option 2: Worm Option 3: Trojan Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: Ransomware --- **Q97:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q98:** What is the primary purpose of using a nonce in cryptographic protocols? Option 1: To add randomness to the encryption process Option 2: To increase the security of the cryptographic keys Option 3: To prevent replay attacks Option 4: To authenticate the parties involved in the communication Correct Answer: To prevent replay attacks --- **Q99:** A hacker uses a DNS spoofing attack to redirect a user to a fake website that looks like a legitimate one. Once the user enters their login credentials, the hacker steals the information. Which OSI layer is being attacked? Option 1: Physical layer Option 2: Data link layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Application layer Correct Answer: Application layer --- **Q100:** An attacker intercepts traffic between a user and a server in order to eavesdrop on sensitive information being transmitted. This is an example of what type of attack? Option 1: On-path Attack Option 2: Spoofing Option 3: Phishing Option 4: Side-channel Correct Answer: On-path Attack --- **Q101:** Which security control is used to monitor and analyze user activities and access patterns in cloud environments? Option 1: Security information and event management (SIEM) Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 3: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC) Correct Answer: Security information and event management (SIEM) --- **Q102:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities --- **Q103:** What is the range of dynamic or private ports? Option 1: 49152-65535 Option 2: 0-1023 Option 3: 1024-49151 Option 4: none of the above Correct Answer: 49152-65535 --- **Q104:** Which security control is designed to detect and prevent buffer overflow attacks? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Firewalls Option 3: Antivirus software Option 4: Input validation mechanisms Correct Answer: Input validation mechanisms --- **Q105:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a MAC flooding attack? Option 1: Layer 2 Option 2: Layer 3 Option 3: Layer 4 Option 4: Layer 7 Correct Answer: Layer 2 --- **Q106:** What is the primary purpose of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 2: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 3: To automate software deployment processes Option 4: To monitor user activities and access patterns Correct Answer: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources --- **Q107:** What is the main purpose of an Incident Response Plan (IRP)? Option 1: To improve employee productivity Option 2: To prevent all security incidents from occurring Option 3: To allocate resources for routine maintenance tasks Option 4: To provide guidelines and procedures for responding to and mitigating security incidents Correct Answer: To provide guidelines and procedures for responding to and mitigating security incidents --- **Q108:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment? Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources --- **Q109:** What is the primary goal of implementing role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities --- **Q110:** Which type of attack involves flooding a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable to legitimate users? Option 1: DOS/DDOS Option 2: Spoofing Option 3: Phishing Option 4: Virus Correct Answer: DOS/DDOS --- **Q111:** What is the purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services --- **Q112:** A user clicks on an attachment in an email that they believe is from a friend, which then installs malicious software on their computer. This is an example of what type of malware? Option 1: Worm Option 2: Virus Option 3: Trojan Option 4: Ransomware Correct Answer: Trojan --- **Q113:** Which cloud deployment model provides a combination of private and public cloud resources? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Hybrid cloud --- **Q114:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a public cloud deployment model? Option 1: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization Option 2: Limited scalability options Option 3: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations Correct Answer: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations --- **Q115:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through stolen or compromised credentials? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 3: Data encryption at rest Option 4: Network segmentation Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) --- **Q116:** A hacker uses a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack to flood a company's network with traffic, rendering it unable to function properly. Which OSI layer is being attacked? Option 1: Physical layer Option 2: Data link layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Transport layer Correct Answer: Network layer --- **Q117:** What is the primary objective of implementing a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution? Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q118:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a SYN flood attack? Option 1: Layer 4 Option 2: Layer 5 Option 3: Layer 6 Option 4: Layer 7 Correct Answer: Layer 4 --- **Q119:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through stolen or compromised credentials? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 3: Data encryption at rest Option 4: Network segmentation Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) --- **Q120:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users' devices? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q121:** An organization is experiencing issues with their VPN connection, causing frequent disconnects. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Physical Layer Correct Answer: Transport Layer --- **Q122:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet? Option 1: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 2: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS) --- **Q123:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from external networks? Option 1: Username and password Option 2: Biometric authentication Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization) Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization) --- **Q124:** A company has been experiencing network connectivity issues that have been traced to a problem with the cabling. Which OSI layer is affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Physical Layer Correct Answer: Physical Layer --- **Q125:** What is an IPv4 address? Option 1: A 128-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. Option 2: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. Option 3: An address used for internal network use only. Option 4: An address used for documentation purposes only. Correct Answer: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network. --- **Q126:** Which security control is used to detect and respond to security incidents in cloud environments? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 3: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 4: Data encryption at rest Correct Answer: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) --- **Q127:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud databases? Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM) Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC) --- **Q128:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution? Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments --- **Q129:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization? Option 1: Public cloud Option 2: Private cloud Option 3: Hybrid cloud Option 4: Community cloud Correct Answer: Private cloud --- **Q130:** What is the range of well-known ports? Option 1: 0-1023 Option 2: 1024-49151 Option 3: 1024-49151 Option 4: none of the above Correct Answer: 0-1023 --- **Q131:** What is the primary purpose of implementing a firewall in a network? Option 1: To optimize network performance Option 2: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic Option 3: To encrypt data transmitted over the network Option 4: To prevent physical access to network devices Correct Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic --- **Q132:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a private cloud deployment model? Option 1: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations Option 2: Limited scalability options Option 3: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations Correct Answer: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization --- **Q133:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data at rest in cloud storage? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q134:** What is an IP address? Option 1: A physical address used to connect multiple devices in a network Option 2: An address that represents the network interface within the network Option 3: An address that denotes the vendor or manufacturer of the physical network interface Option 4: A logical address associated with a unique network interface within the network Correct Answer: A logical address associated with a unique network interface within the network --- **Q135:** What is the difference between a hub and a switch? Option 1: A hub is smarter than a switch. Option 2: A switch is less likely to be seen in home networks. Option 3: A switch can create separate broadcast domains when used to create VLANs. Option 4: A switch retransmits traffic to all devices, while a switch routes traffic to a specific device. Correct Answer: A switch retransmits traffic to all devices, while a switch routes traffic to a specific device. --- **Q136:** Which device is used to control traffic flow on networks? Option 1: switch Option 2: Firewalls Option 3: hub Option 4: router Correct Answer: switch --- **Q137:** Which protocol is used for secure email? Option 1: SMTPS Option 2: IMAPS Option 3: POP3S Option 4: All of the above Correct Answer: All of the above --- **Q138:** Which phase of the Incident Response Plan (IRP) process involves containing the impact of a security incident and mitigating further damage? Option 1: Preparation and planning Option 2: Detection and analysis Option 3: Response and mitigation Option 4: Recovery and post-incident activities Correct Answer: Response and mitigation --- **Q139:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a buffer overflow attack? Option 1: Layer 5 Option 2: Layer 6 Option 3: Layer 7 Option 4: Layer 8 Correct Answer: Layer 7 --- **Q140:** What does the "shared responsibility model" in cloud computing refer to? Option 1: Responsibility for data encryption Option 2: Division of security responsibilities between the cloud provider and the customer Option 3: Ownership of physical infrastructure Option 4: Compliance with industry regulations Correct Answer: Division of security responsibilities between the cloud provider and the customer --- **Q141:** What is the primary purpose of using network segmentation in a cloud environment? Option 1: To optimize network bandwidth Option 2: To increase network latency Option 3: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes Correct Answer: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes --- **Q142:** How does subnetting help to improve network performance? Option 1: By reducing network congestion Option 2: By increasing network bandwidth Option 3: By improving network security Option 4: By simplifying network management Correct Answer: By reducing network congestion --- **Q143:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS) --- **Q144:** Which port is commonly used for HTTPS? Option 1: 80 Option 2: 443 Option 3: 446 Option 4: 22 Correct Answer: 443 --- **Q145:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud databases? Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC) Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM) Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC) --- **Q146:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through stolen or compromised credentials? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 3: Data encryption at rest Option 4: Network segmentation Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) --- **Q147:** What is the primary purpose of implementing network encryption in a cloud environment? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks --- **Q148:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud environment? Option 1: To monitor user activities and access patterns Option 2: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks Option 3: To enforce regulatory compliance Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users' roles and responsibilities --- **Q149:** A hacker uses a man-in-the-middle attack to intercept network traffic between two nodes and injects malicious code into the data stream. Which TCP layer is being attacked? Option 1: Physical layer Option 2: Transport layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Application layer Correct Answer: Transport layer --- **Q150:** Which of the following is an example of a security control used to protect data at rest in cloud storage? ) Option 1: Transport Layer Security (TLS) Option 2: Data encryption Option 3: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 4: Multi-factor authentication (MFA Correct Answer: Data encryption --- **Q151:** What is an IPSec replay attack? Option 1: An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets into an existing session Option 2: An attack where an attacker modifies packets in transit Option 3: An attack where an attacker eavesdrops on network traffic Option 4: An attack where an attacker overloads a network with traffic Correct Answer: An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets into an existing session --- **Q152:** What is the primary goal of implementing intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) in a network? Option 1: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes Option 2: To optimize network performance Option 3: To detect and respond to malicious activities and security threats Option 4: To prevent physical access to network devices Correct Answer: To detect and respond to malicious activities and security threats --- **Q153:** A company has noticed that their network performance has been slow lately. After investigating, they discover that their router is not configured properly, leading to network congestion. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Data Link Layer Correct Answer: Network Layer --- **Q154:** Which cloud service model provides access to virtualized computing resources over the internet? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) --- **Q155:** What is the primary goal of implementing data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization --- **Q156:** What is the main advantage of using a rainbow table attack compared to a brute-force attack? Option 1: Rainbow table attacks are faster and more efficient Option 2: Brute-force attacks are less computationally intensive Option 3: Rainbow table attacks are less likely to succeed Option 4: Brute-force attacks require less memory resources Correct Answer: Rainbow table attacks are faster and more efficient --- **Q157:** A company has noticed that their network performance has been slow lately. After investigating, they discover that their router is not configured properly, leading to network congestion. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue? Option 1: Application Layer Option 2: Transport Layer Option 3: Network Layer Option 4: Data Link Layer Correct Answer: Network Layer --- **Q158:** A hacker sends a specially crafted email with a malicious attachment to an employee of a company. Once the employee downloads and opens the attachment, malware is installed on the computer. Which TCP layer is being attacked? Option 1: Application layer Option 2: Transport layer Option 3: Network layer Option 4: Physical layer Correct Answer: Application layer --- **Q159:** What is the primary purpose of using encryption at rest in cloud storage? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 3: To automate software deployment processes Option 4: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access Correct Answer: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access --- **Q160:** Which security control is used to monitor and analyze user activities and access patterns in cloud environments? Option 1: Security information and event management (SIEM) Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 3: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC) Correct Answer: Security information and event management (SIEM) --- **Q161:** What is the primary goal of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud environments? Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization Option 4: To automate software deployment processes Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization --- **Q162:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through stolen or compromised credentials? Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS) Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) Option 3: Data encryption at rest Option 4: Network segmentation Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) --- **Q163:** Which cloud service model provides the highest level of abstraction and requires the least management effort by customers? Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS) Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS) Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS) Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS) --- **Q164:** What is the main advantage of using a one-time pad (OTP) encryption scheme? Option 1: OTP encryption provides perfect secrecy Option 2: OTP encryption is computationally efficient Option 3: OTP encryption requires smaller key sizes Option 4: OTP encryption is resistant to brute-force attacks Correct Answer: OTP encryption provides perfect secrecy --- **Q165:** What is a key benefit of using containerization in cloud environments? Option 1: Improved hardware utilization Option 2: Enhanced network security Option 3: Simplified application deployment Option 4: Reduced data transfer costs Correct Answer: Simplified application deployment --- **Q166:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users' devices? Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard) Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) --- **Q167:** What is the main problem with assigning static privileges to administrative users on a database? Option 1: Security is dependent upon the login process Option 2: Administrative users may forget their privileges Option 3: Static privileges are more expensive to implement Option 4: Static privileges may not provide enough access Correct Answer: Security is dependent upon the login process --- ================================================ FILE: Dump Questions/200+ Question Answer Flashcard.md ================================================ # [(ISC)2 Flashcards for CC (Certified in Cybersecurity)](https://learn.isc2.org/d2l/home/9541) ## [Chapter 1 - Security Principles](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-1) 1. Security commensurate with the risk and the magnitude of harm resulting from the loss, misuse or unauthorized access to or modification of information. > Adequate Security 2. Controls implemented through policy and procedures. Examples include access control processes and requiring multiple personnel to conduct a specific operation. Administrative controls in modern environments are often enforced in conjunction with physical and/or technical controls, such as an access-granting policy for new users that requires login and approval by the hiring manager. > Administrative Controls 3. The ability of computers and robots to simulate human intelligence and behavior. > Artificial Intelligence 4. Anything of value that is owned by an organization. Assets include both tangible items such as information systems and physical property and intangible assets such as intellectual property. > Asset 5. Access control process validating that the identity being claimed by a user or entity is known to the system, by comparing one (single factor or SFA) or more (multi-factor authentication or MFA) factors of identification. > Authentication 6. The right or a permission that is granted to a system entity to access a system resource. > Authorization 7. Ensuring timely and reliable access to and use of information by authorized users. > Availability 8. A documented, lowest level of security configuration allowed by a standard or organization. > Baseline 9. Biological characteristics of an individual, such as a fingerprint, hand geometry, voice, or iris patterns. > Biometric 10. Malicious code that acts like a remotely controlled "robot" for an attacker, with other Trojan and worm capabilities. > Bot 11. Information that has been determined to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status and classification level when in documentary form. > Classified or Sensitive Information 12. The characteristic of data or information when it is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized persons or processes. > Confidentiality 13. A measure of the degree to which an organization depends on the information or information system for the success of a mission or of a business function. > Criticality 14. The property that data has not been altered in an unauthorized manner. Data integrity covers data in storage, during processing and while in transit. > Data integrity 15. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have similar meanings. > Encryption 16. In 2016, the European Union passed comprehensive legislation that addresses personal privacy, deeming it an individual human right. > General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) 17. The process of how an organization is managed; usually includes all aspects of how decisions are made for that organization, such as policies, roles, and procedures the organization uses to make those decisions. > Governance 18. This U.S. federal law is the most important healthcare information regulation in the United States. It directs the adoption of national standards for electronic healthcare transactions while protecting the privacy of individual's health information. Other provisions address fraud reduction, protections for individuals with health insurance and a wide range of other healthcare-related activities. > Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 19. The magnitude of harm that could be caused by a threat's exercise of a vulnerability. > Impact 20. The potential adverse impacts to an organization's operations (including its mission, functions and image and reputation), assets, individuals, other organizations, and even the nation, which results from the possibility of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction of information and/or information systems. > Information Security Risk 21. The property of information whereby it is recorded, used and maintained in a way that ensures its completeness, accuracy, internal consistency and usefulness for a stated purpose. > Integrity 22. The ISO develops voluntary international standards in collaboration with its partners in international standardization, the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC) and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), particularly in the field of information and communication technologies. > International Organization of Standards (ISO) 23. The internet standards organization, made up of network designers, operators, vendors and researchers, that defines protocol standards (e.g., IP, TCP, DNS) through a process of collaboration and consensus. > Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) 24. The probability that a potential vulnerability may be exercised within the construct of the associated threat environment. > Likelihood 25. A weighted factor based on a subjective analysis of the probability that a given threat is capable of exploiting a given vulnerability or set of vulnerabilities. > Likelihood of Occurrence 26. Using two or more distinct instances of the three factors of authentication (something you know, something you have, something you are) for identity verification. > Multi-Factor Authentication 27. The NIST is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce and addresses the measurement infrastructure within science and technology efforts within the U.S. federal government. NIST sets standards in a number of areas, including information security within the Computer Security Resource Center of the Computer Security Divisions. > National Institutes of Standards and Technology (NIST) 28. The inability to deny taking an action such as creating information, approving information and sending or receiving a message. > Non-repudiation 29. The National Institute of Standards and Technology, known as NIST, in its Special Publication 800-122 defines PII as "any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including (1) any information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual's identity, such as name, Social Security number, date and place of birth, mother's maiden name, or biometric records; and (2) any other information that is linked or linkable to an individual, such as medical, educational, financial and employment information." > Personally Identifiable Information (PII) 30. Controls implemented through a tangible mechanism. Examples include walls, fences, guards, locks, etc. In modern organizations, many physical control systems are linked to technical/logical systems, such as badge readers connected to door locks. > Physical Controls 31. The right of an individual to control the distribution of information about themselves. > Privacy 32. The chances, or likelihood, that a given threat is capable of exploiting a given vulnerability or a set of vulnerabilities. > Probability 33. Information regarding health status, the provision of healthcare or payment for healthcare as defined in HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). > Protected Health Information (PHI) 34. A method for risk analysis that is based on the assignment of a descriptor such as low, medium or high. > Qualitative Risk Analysis 35. A method for risk analysis where numerical values are assigned to both impact and likelihood based on statistical probabilities and monetarized valuation of loss or gain. > Quantitative Risk Analysis 36. A possible event which can have a negative impact upon the organization. > Risk 37. Determining that the potential benefits of a business function outweigh the possible risk impact/likelihood and performing that business function with no other action. > Risk Acceptance 38. The process of identifying and analyzing risks to organizational operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), organizational assets, individuals and other organizations. The analysis performed as part of risk management which incorporates threat and vulnerability analyses and considers mitigations provided by security controls planned or in place. > Risk Assessment 39. Determining that the impact and/or likelihood of a specific risk is too great to be offset by the potential benefits and not performing a certain business function because of that determination. > Risk Avoidance 40. The process of identifying, evaluating and controlling threats, including all the phases of risk context (or frame), risk assessment, risk treatment and risk monitoring. > Risk Management 41. A structured approach used to oversee and manage risk for an enterprise. > Risk Management Framework 42. Putting security controls in place to reduce the possible impact and/or likelihood of a specific risk. > Risk Mitigation 43. The level of risk an entity is willing to assume in order to achieve a potential desired result. Source: NIST SP 800-32. Risk threshold, risk appetite and acceptable risk are also terms used synonymously with risk tolerance. > Risk Tolerance 44. Paying an external party to accept the financial impact of a given risk. > Risk Transference 45. The determination of the best way to address an identified risk. > Risk Treatment 46. The management, operational and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) prescribed for an information system to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the system and its information. > Security Controls 47. A measure of the importance assigned to information by its owner, for the purpose of denoting its need for protection. > Sensitivity 48. Use of just one of the three available factors (something you know, something you have, something you are) to carry out the authentication process being requested. > Single-Factor Authentication 49. The condition an entity is in at a point in time. > State 50. The quality that a system has when it performs its intended function in an unimpaired manner, free from unauthorized manipulation of the system, whether intentional or accidental. > System Integrity 51. Security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that are primarily implemented and executed by the information system through mechanisms contained in the hardware, software or firmware components of the system. > Technical Controls 52. Any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact organizational operations (including mission, functions, image or reputation), organizational assets, individuals, other organizations or the nation through an information system via unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure, modification of information and/or denial of service. > Threat 53. An individual or a group that attempts to exploit vulnerabilities to cause or force a threat to occur. > Threat Actor 54. The means by which a threat actor carries out their objectives. > Threat Vector 55. A physical object a user possesses and controls that is used to authenticate the user's identity. > Token 56. Weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls or implementation that could be exploited by a threat source. > Vulnerability 57. IEEE is a professional organization that sets standards for telecommunications, computer engineering and similar disciplines. > Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers ## [Chapter 2 - Incident Response, Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Concepts](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-2) 1. Events with a negative consequence, such as system crashes, network packet floods, unauthorized use of system privileges, defacement of a web page or execution of malicious code that destroys data. > Adverse Events 2. The loss of control, compromise, unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized acquisition or any similar occurrence where: a person other than an authorized user accesses or potentially accesses personally identifiable information; or an authorized user accesses personally identifiable information for other than an authorized purpose. > Breach 3. Actions, processes and tools for ensuring an organization can continue critical operations during a contingency. > Business Continuity (BC) 4. The documentation of a predetermined set of instructions or procedures that describe how an organization's mission/business processes will be sustained during and after a significant disruption. > Business Continuity Plan (BCP) 5. An analysis of an information system's requirements, functions, and interdependencies used to characterize system contingency requirements and priorities in the event of a significant disruption. > Business Impact Analysis (BIA) 6. In information systems terms, the activities necessary to restore IT and communications services to an organization during and after an outage, disruption or disturbance of any kind or scale. > Disaster Recovery (DR) 7. The processes, policies and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of an organization's critical business functions, technology infrastructure, systems and applications after the organization experiences a disaster. A disaster is when an organization's critical business function(s) cannot be performed at an acceptable level within a predetermined period following a disruption. > Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) 8. Any observable occurrence in a network or system. > Event 9. A particular attack. It is named this way because these attacks exploit system vulnerabilities. > Exploit 10. An event that actually or potentially jeopardizes the confidentiality, integrity or availability of an information system or the information the system processes, stores or transmits. > Incident 11. The mitigation of violations of security policies and recommended practices. > Incident Handling 12. The mitigation of violations of security policies and recommended practices. > Incident Response (IR) 13. The documentation of a predetermined set of instructions or procedures to detect, respond to and limit consequences of a malicious cyberattack against an organization's information systems(s). > Incident Response Plan (IRP) 14. A security event, or combination of security events, that constitutes a security incident in which an intruder gains, or attempts to gain, access to a system or system resource without authorization. > Intrusion 15. A centralized organizational function fulfilled by an information security team that monitors, detects and analyzes events on the network or system to prevent and resolve issues before they result in business disruptions. > Security Operations Center 16. Weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls or implementation that could be exploited or triggered by a threat source. > Vulnerability 17. A previously unknown system vulnerability with the potential of exploitation without risk of detection or prevention because it does not, in general, fit recognized patterns, signatures or methods. > Zero Day ## [Chapter 3 - Access Control Concepts](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-3) 1. Independent review and examination of records and activities to assess the adequacy of system controls, to ensure compliance with established policies and operational procedures. > Audit 2. An architectural approach to the design of buildings and spaces which emphasizes passive features to reduce the likelihood of criminal activity. > Crime Prevention through Environmental Design (CPTED) 3. Information security strategy integrating people, technology, and operations capabilities to establish variable barriers across multiple layers and missions of the organization. > Defense in Depth 4. A certain amount of access control is left to the discretion of the object's owner, or anyone else who is authorized to control the object's access. The owner can determine who should have access rights to an object and what those rights should be. > Discretionary Access Control (DAC) 5. To protect private information by putting it into a form that can only be read by people who have permission to do so. > Encrypt 6. Devices that enforce administrative security policies by filtering incoming traffic based on a set of rules. > Firewalls 7. An entity with authorized access that has the potential to harm an information system through destruction, disclosure, modification of data, and/or denial of service. > Insider Threat 8. An operating system manufactured by Apple Inc. Used for mobile devices. > iOS 9. The use of multiple controls arranged in series to provide several consecutive controls to protect an asset; also called defense in depth. > Layered Defense 10. An operating system that is open source, making its source code legally available to end users. > Linux 11. A system irregularity that is identified when studying log entries which could represent events of interest for further surveillance. > Log Anomaly 12. Collecting and storing user activities in a log, which is a record of the events occurring within an organization's systems and networks. > Logging 13. An automated system that controls an individual's ability to access one or more computer system resources, such as a workstation, network, application or database. A logical access control system requires the validation of an individual's identity through some mechanism, such as a PIN, card, biometric or other token. It has the capability to assign different access privileges to different individuals depending on their roles and responsibilities in an organization. > Logical Access Control Systems 14. Access control that requires the system itself to manage access controls in accordance with the organization's security policies. > Mandatory Access Control 15. An entrance to a building or an area that requires people to pass through two doors with only one door opened at a time. > Mantrap 16. Passive information system-related entity (e.g., devices, files, records, tables, processes, programs, domains) containing or receiving information. Access to an object (by a subject) implies access to the information it contains. See subject. > Object 17. Controls implemented through a tangible mechanism. Examples include walls, fences, guards, locks, etc. In modern organizations, many physical control systems are linked to technical/logical systems, such as badge readers connected to door locks. > Physical Access Controls 18. The principle that users and programs should have only the minimum privileges necessary to complete their tasks. > Principle of Least Privilege 19. An information system account with approved authorizations of a privileged user. > Privileged Account 20. A type of malicious software that locks the computer screen or files, thus preventing or limiting a user from accessing their system and data until money is paid. > Ransomware 21. An access control system that sets up user permissions based on roles. > Role-based access control (RBAC) 22. An instruction developed to allow or deny access to a system by comparing the validated identity of the subject to an access control list. > Rule 23. The practice of ensuring that an organizational process cannot be completed by a single person; forces collusion as a means to reduce insider threats. Also commonly known as Separation of Duties. > Segregation of Duties 24. Generally an individual, process or device causing information to flow among objects or change to the system state. > Subject 25. The security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that are primarily implemented and executed by the information system through mechanisms contained in the hardware, software or firmware components of the system. > Technical Controls 26. A one-way spinning door or barrier that allows only one person at a time to enter a building or pass through an area. > Turnstile 27. An operating system used in software development. > Unix 28. The process of creating, maintaining and deactivating user identities on a system. > User Provisioning ## [Chapter 4 - Network Security](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-4) 1. A set of routines, standards, protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a web-based software application or web tool. > Application programming interface (API) 2. The most essential representation of data (zero or one) at Layer 1 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. > Bit 3. Broadcast transmission is a one-to-many (one-to-everyone) form of sending internet traffic. > Broadcast 4. The byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits. > Byte 5. A model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction. > Cloud Computing 6. A system in which the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy and compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises. > Community Cloud 7. The opposite process of encapsulation, in which bundles of data are unpacked or revealed. > De-encapsulation 8. The prevention of authorized access to resources or the delaying of time-critical operations. (Time-critical may be milliseconds or it may be hours, depending upon the service provided.) > Denial-of-Service (DoS) 9. This acronym can be applied to three interrelated elements: a service, a physical server and a network protocol. > Domain Name Service (DNS) 10. Enforcement of data hiding and code hiding during all phases of software development and operational use. Bundling together data and methods is the process of encapsulation; its opposite process may be called unpacking, revealing, or using other terms. Also used to refer to taking any set of data and packaging it or hiding it in another data structure, as is common in network protocols and encryption. > Encapsulation 11. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have similar meanings. > Encryption 12. The internet protocol (and program) used to transfer files between hosts. > File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 13. In a fragment attack, an attacker fragments traffic in such a way that a system is unable to put data packets back together. > Fragment attack 14. The physical parts of a computer and related devices. > Hardware 15. A combination of public cloud storage and private cloud storage where some critical data resides in the enterprise's private cloud while other data is stored and accessible from a public cloud storage provider. > Hybrid cloud 16. The provider of the core computing, storage and network hardware and software that is the foundation upon which organizations can build and then deploy applications. IaaS is popular in the data center where software and servers are purchased as a fully outsourced service and usually billed on usage and how much of the resource is used. > Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) 17. An IP network protocol standardized by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) through RFC 792 to determine if a particular service or host is available. > Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) 18. Standard protocol for transmission of data from source to destinations in packet-switched communications networks and interconnected systems of such networks. > Internet Protocol (IPv4) 19. An attack where the adversary positions himself in between the user and the system so that he can intercept and alter data traveling between them. > Man-in-the-Middle 20. Part of a zero-trust strategy that breaks LANs into very small, highly localized zones using firewalls or similar technologies. At the limit, this places firewall at every connection point. > Microsegmentation 21. Purposely sending a network packet that is larger than expected or larger than can be handled by the receiving system, causing the receiving system to fail unexpectedly. > Oversized Packet Attack 22. Representation of data at Layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. > Packet 23. The primary action of a malicious code attack. > Payload 24. An information security standard administered by the Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council that applies to merchants and service providers who process credit or debit card transactions. > Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) 25. The web-authoring or application development middleware environment that allows applications to be built in the cloud before they're deployed as SaaS assets. > Platform as a Service (PaaS) 26. The phrase used to describe a cloud computing platform that is implemented within the corporate firewall, under the control of the IT department. A private cloud is designed to offer the same features and benefits of cloud systems, but removes a number of objections to the cloud computing model, including control over enterprise and customer data, worries about security, and issues connected to regulatory compliance. > Private cloud 27. A set of rules (formats and procedures) to implement and control some type of association (that is, communication) between systems. > Protocols 28. The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned, managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some combination of them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider. > Public cloud 29. The standard communication protocol for sending and receiving emails between senders and receivers. > Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) 30. Computer programs and associated data that may be dynamically written or modified during execution. > Software 31. The cloud customer uses the cloud provider's applications running within a cloud infrastructure. The applications are accessible from various client devices through either a thin client interface, such as a web browser or a program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application capabilities, with the possible exception of limited user-specific application configuration settings. > Software as a Service (SaaS) 32. Faking the sending address of a transmission to gain illegal entry into a secure system > Spoofing 33. Internetworking protocol model created by the IETF, which specifies four layers of functionality: Link layer (physical communications), Internet Layer (network-to-network communication), Transport Layer (basic channels for connections and connectionless exchange of data between hosts), and Application Layer, where other protocols and user applications programs make use of network services. > Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Model 34. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical group of workstations, servers, and network devices that appear to be on the same LAN despite their geographical distribution. > VLAN 35. A virtual private network (VPN), built on top of existing networks, that can provide a secure communications mechanism for transmission between networks. > VPN 36. A wireless area network (WLAN) is a group of computers and devices that are located in the same vicinity, forming a network based on radio transmissions rather than wired connections. A Wi-Fi network is a type of WLAN. > WLAN 37. The graphical user interface (GUI) for the Nmap Security Scanner, an open-source application that scans networks to determine everything that is connected as well as other information. > Zenmap 38. Removing the design belief that the network has any trusted space. Security is managed at each possible level, representing the most granular asset. Microsegmentation of workloads is a tool of the model. > Zero Trust ## [Chapter 5 - Security Operations](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-5) 1. A computer responsible for hosting applications to user workstations. > Application Server 2. An algorithm that uses one key to encrypt and a different key to decrypt the input plaintext. > Asymmetric Encryption 3. A digit representing the sum of the correct digits in a piece of stored or transmitted digital data, against which later comparisons can be made to detect errors in the data. > Checksum 4. The altered form of a plaintext message so it is unreadable for anyone except the intended recipients. In other words, it has been turned into a secret. > Ciphertext 5. Classification identifies the degree of harm to the organization, its stakeholders or others that might result if an information asset is divulged to an unauthorized person, process or organization. In short, classification is focused first and foremost on maintaining the confidentiality of the data, based on the data sensitivity. > Classification 6. A process and discipline used to ensure that the only changes made to a system are those that have been authorized and validated. > Configuration management 7. One who performs cryptanalysis which is the study of mathematical techniques for attempting to defeat cryptographic techniques and/or information systems security. This includes the process of looking for errors or weaknesses in the implementation of an algorithm or of the algorithm itself. > Cryptanalyst 8. The study or applications of methods to secure or protect the meaning and content of messages, files, or other information, usually by disguise, obscuration, or other transformations of that content and meaning. > Cryptography 9. System capabilities designed to detect and prevent the unauthorized use and transmission of information. > Data Loss Prevention (DLP) 10. The reverse process from encryption. It is the process of converting a ciphertext message back into plaintext through the use of the cryptographic algorithm and the appropriate key for decryption (which is the same for symmetric encryption, but different for asymmetric encryption). This term is also used interchangeably with the "deciphering." > Decryption 11. A technique of erasing data on disk or tape (including video tapes) that, when performed properly, ensures that there is insufficient magnetic remanence to reconstruct data. > Degaussing 12. The result of a cryptographic transformation of data which, when properly implemented, provides the services of origin authentication, data integrity, and signer non-repudiation. > Digital Signature 13. Monitoring of outgoing network traffic. > Egress Monitoring 14. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have similar meanings. > Encryption 15. The total set of algorithms, processes, hardware, software, and procedures that taken together provide an encryption and decryption capability. > Encryption System 16. A reference to the process of applying secure configurations (to reduce the attack surface) and locking down various hardware, communications systems, and software, including operating system, web server, application server, application, etc. Hardening is normally performed based on industry guidelines and benchmarks, such as those provided by the Center for Internet Security (CIS). > Hardening 17. An algorithm that computes a numerical value (called the hash value) on a data file or electronic message that is used to represent that file or message and depends on the entire contents of the file or message. A hash function can be considered to be a fingerprint of the file or message. > Hash Function 18. The process of using a mathematical algorithm against data to produce a numeric value that is representative of that data. > Hashing 19. The requirements for information sharing by an IT system with one or more other IT systems or applications, for information sharing to support multiple internal or external organizations, missions, or public programs. > Information Sharing 20. Monitoring of incoming network traffic. > Ingress Monitoring 21. A digital signature that uniquely identifies data and has the property such that changing a single bit in the data will cause a completely different message digest to be generated. > Message Digest 22. The software "master control application" that runs the computer. It is the first program loaded when the computer is turned on, and its main component, the kernel, resides in memory at all times. The operating system sets the standards for all application programs (such as the Web server) that run in the computer. The applications communicate with the operating system for most user interface and file management operations. > Operating System 23. A software component that, when installed, directly modifies files or device settings related to a different software component without changing the version number or release details for the related software component. > Patch 24. The systematic notification, identification, deployment, installation and verification of operating system and application software code revisions. These revisions are known as patches, hot fixes, and service packs. > Patch Management 25. A message or data in its natural format and in readable form; extremely vulnerable from a confidentiality perspective. > Plaintext 26. The recordings (automated and/or manual) of evidence of activities performed or results achieved (e.g., forms, reports, test results), which serve as a basis for verifying that the organization and the information system are performing as intended. Also used to refer to units of related data fields (i.e., groups of data fields that can be accessed by a program and that contain the complete set of information on particular items). > Records 27. A practice based on the records life cycle, according to which records are retained as long as necessary, and then are destroyed after the appropriate time interval has elapsed. > Records Retention 28. Residual information remaining on storage media after clearing. > Remanence 29. The first stage of change management, wherein a change in procedure or product is sought by a stakeholder. > Request for change (RFC) 30. The entirety of the policies, roles, and processes the organization uses to make security decisions in an organization. > Security Governance 31. Tactics to infiltrate systems via email, phone, text, or social media, often impersonating a person or agency in authority or offering a gift. A low-tech method would be simply following someone into a secure building. > Social engineering 32. An algorithm that uses the same key in both the encryption and the decryption processes. > Symmetric encryption 33. A computer that provides World Wide Web (WWW) services on the Internet. It includes the hardware, operating system, Web server software, and Web site content (Web pages). If the Web server is used internally and not by the public, it may be known as an "intranet server." > Web Server 34. Phishing attacks that attempt to trick highly placed officials or private individuals with sizable assets into authorizing large fund wire transfers to previously unknown entities. > Whaling Attack ================================================ FILE: Dump Questions/70+ Additional dumps.md ================================================ ### Questions and Answers 1. A cyberattacker changes the website of a pharmacy so it displays incorrect information about COVID testing. This is an example of what kind of compromise? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. Nonrepudiation ANS: B. Changing data without proper authorization is a compromise of integrity. 2. The function of a computer system that verifies the identity of a user is called _________. A. Authentication B. Authorization C. Authenticity D. Availability ANS: A. Authentication is the function of verifying a user’s identity. 3. Jane received an electronic message from Fred that was digitally signed proving it came from him. However, Fred said he never sent it. This is an example of what message integrity characteristic? A. Nonreputation B. Nonrefutability C. Nonrepudiation D. Authenticity ANS: C. Nonrepudiation technologies are used to guarantee that a sender of a message cannot later deny that they sent the message. 4. Which of the following elements do not apply to privacy? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. None of the above ANS: D. All of the items listed apply to privacy. 5. Information assurance refers to the ____________ of information security. A. Quality B. Confidentiality C. Ethics D. Measurement ANS: D. Information assurance is the measurement of the security controls an organization has put into place. 6. What is the first thing a cyberattacker would want to do to launch an attack against an organization? A. Learn about the organization’s vulnerabilities. B. Learn about the organization’s business, including domain names, corporate information, facilities, names of employees, etc. C. Deploy malware. D. Steal data. ANS: B. While learning about vulnerabilities might seem like a good answer, the best answer is learning about the organization’s business details because that will provide the basic information the cyberattacker can use to launch the attack. 7. An earthquake is an example of a ____________? A. Threat agent B. Threat C. Vulnerability D. Risk ANS: B. An earthquake is a natural disaster that may occur and that could cause harm to an organization; therefore it is a threat to the organization. 8. Which of the following statements is most correct? A. Security should be done the same way regardless of the situation. B. Security should be tailored based on the situation. C. It’s always best to mitigate risks rather than transfer them. D. Risk avoidance trumps security controls every time. ANS: B. Answers A, C, and D all contain absolute statements about applying security. But security is never absolute; it is tailored based on the situation and the organization’s tolerance for risk, so the best answer is B. 9. You are asked to perform a risk assessment of an information system for the purpose of recommending the most appropriate security controls. You have a short amount of time to do this. You have information about how each asset in the system is used and its importance to the business, but you have no financial information about the assets or the information systems. Which is the most appropriate method to use for this assessment? A. Qualitative B. Threat modeling C. Quantitative D. Delphi ANS: A. Since you have no financial data, a quantitative assessment is not possible, but since you have information about how each asset in the system is used and its importance to the business, you have what you need to do a qualitative analysis. 10. You are asked to implement a risk treatment in which your IT department is removing a server from the environment that it deems is too risky due to having too many vulnerabilities in it. You have just practiced which type of risk treatment? A. Risk transfer B. Risk avoidance C. Risk acceptance D. Risk mitigation ANS: C. Risk avoidance is the best answer because by removing the risky server altogether, you are avoiding the risk. Answer D may have been considered because vulnerability mitigation is a type of risk treatment, but that usually involves addressing specific vulnerabilities, not removing entire systems or services. 11. A security engineer is performing a review of an organization’s datacenter security controls. They document that the datacenter lacks security cameras for monitoring the facilities. What type of control does this represent? A. Administrative B. Technical C. Physical D. Logical ANS: C. Security cameras used for monitoring facilities are an example of physical security controls. Administrative controls are managementoriented controls such as documentation, policies, procedures, and training. Technical or logical controls are hardware or software components implemented by computer systems or network devices. 12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of security controls? A. Physical controls are also referred to as logical controls. B. Logical controls are also referred to as managerial controls. C. Physical controls are also referred to as managerial controls. D. Administrative controls are also referred to as soft controls. ANS: D. Administrative controls are also referred to as soft controls or managerial controls. Technical controls are also referred to as logical controls. 13. The senior security engineer is creating a document that provides step-by-step instructions on how to launch a vulnerability scan utilizing the organization’s vulnerability scanning tool that all security engineers will be required to follow. Which of the following governance elements is this an example of? A. Policy B. Procedure C. Guideline D. Law ANS: B. A document containing step-by-step instructions on how to perform a vulnerability scanning is an example of a procedure. Policies are high-level management statements providing directives to the organization but do not prescribe exact steps. Guidelines serve as best practice references but are not required to be followed. While following the procedure may be a requirement of the business, the procedure itself is not a law. 14. An information security policy is an example of which of the following types of controls? A. Administrative B. Technical C. Logical D. Physical ANS: A. A policy is an example of an administrative control. Administrative controls are management-oriented controls that provide directives and instruction aimed at people within the organization, such as documentation, training, and other personnel management practices. Technical controls, also known as logical controls, are hardware or software components that protect virtual resources. Physical controls are tangible controls put in place to protect physical resources against physical threats 15. Sarah is a security engineer for a Software as a Service (SaaS) organization. Her friend Kyle is a systems administrator for the organization and helped her get the job by serving as a reference. While reviewing some system logs, Sarah discovered that Kyle is running a crypto-mining program on a company server for his own financial gain. How should Sarah respond to this situation? A. Ask Kyle to stop B. Ask Kyle to share the profits with her C. Mind her own business D. Escalate to senior management ANS: D. Sarah should immediately escalate this to senior leadership in accordance with the organization’s policies and procedures. This would be the ethical response to this situation. 16. Jane is a security administrator setting up access for a new employee who works in the manufacturing department. Jane makes sure to enable the employee’s access for the manufacturing area but not for the parts storage area. What best describes the principle Jane is applying? A. Principle of authentication B. Two-person rule C. Need to know D. Least privilege ANS: D. Least privilege is the most correct answer. By giving the employee access to the area the employee requires access to but no more, Jane is applying the principle of least privilege. 17. Which statement best describes the relationship between subjects, objects, and rules? A. A subject grants access to an object based on rules. B. An object is granted access to a subject based on rules. C. A subject is granted access to an object based on rules. D. An object is granted access to a subject based on credentials. ANS: C. After first requesting access, a subject gets access to an object based on rules. 18. Credentials are composed of which of the following elements? A. Username and password B. Authorization and accountability C. Something you know and something you have D. Subjects and objects ANS: A. Identification (commonly a username, ID, or account number) and authentication (commonly a password, PIN, or token) are typically used in combination and are called credentials. 19. Joe has to log in to many systems on a daily basis and has too many passwords to remember. What is the best way for Joe to manage his passwords? A. Write the passwords down on a piece of paper. B. Store the passwords in a text file and store it in a safe place. C. Use the same password for every system so he only has to remember one password. D. Use a password manager or password vault software. ANS: D. The best answer is to use a password manager or password vault software to manage passwords. These products require credentials to log in and protect the passwords with encryption and good access control. None of the other answers provide a secure solution. 20. Debby has been an employee of Acme Corp. for over 20 years. During that time, she has been able to access more and more systems. Now she has access to systems she doesn’t even need access to in order to do her job. This is an example of what type of situation? A. Privilege modification B. Access management C. Privileged access management D. Privilege creep ANS: D. The situation described is an example of privilege creep, where over time a person’s access increases beyond that which they require to do their job. 21. The identity and access management lifecycle consists of which steps? A. Provisioning, review, revocation B. Setup, review, auditing C. Creation, monitoring, termination D. Identification, authentication, authorization ANS: A. The identity and access management lifecycle consists of provisioning, review, and revocation steps. 22. Which of the following access control models leverages roles to provision access, where users with similar access needs are assigned to the same role? A. DAC B. MAC C. RBAC D. None of the above ANS: C. Role-based access control (RBAC) enforces access based on roles that define permissions and the level of access provided to any user assigned to that role. Roles are typically developed for similar users with the same access needs (e.g., HR, Sales, IT, Security). 23. An organization is concerned about the risk of a car driving from the parking lot through the entrance of the building. Which of the following security measures would best help address this concern? A. Biometrics B. RBAC C. Badge system D. Bollards ANS: D. Bollards are pillars or spheres made out of hard material used to prevent vehicles from driving through entrances. Biometrics and badge systems are measures to implement physical access control but would not prevent a car from driving through the entrance. RBAC is an access control model. 24. The security team is reviewing the configuration of the door that serves as the only entrance or exit to the datacenter. Organization personnel commonly access the datacenter to perform their work. In the event of a fire that impacts power to the door-locking mechanism, which of the following configurations is best? A. The door should always remain locked. B. The door should fail-secure. C. The door should fail-open. D. The door should automatically lock when there is no power. ANS: C. The door should fail-open (also known as fail-safe). While this is a less secure option, it ensures the preservation of human life, which is the number-one priority. 25. The security team of an organization is concerned about the physical security of datacenter access. They want the datacenter entrance built in such a way that there are two doors with locks and the first door must close before the next door can be unlocked. Which of the following is this an example of? A. Bollard B. Mantrap C. Fence D. Biometric ANS: B. A mantrap is an area that has two doors built in such a way that the first door must be closed before the second door can be opened. 26. Which of the following access control models allows the creator of a resource the ability to assign permissions to other users? A. DAC B. MAC C. RBAC D. None of the above ANS: A. Discretionary access control (DAC) provides the owner of the resource, typically the creator, full control to configure which users can access the resource. 27. Which of the following is referred to as a physical address in computer networking? A. IPv4 address B. IPv6 address C. MAC address D. Loopback address ANS: C. Media access control (MAC) addresses are often referred to as a physical address or hardware address since they are assigned to the device’s physical hardware. Internet Protocol (IP) addresses are known as logical addresses. A loopback address is a special type of IP address. 28. How many layers are there in the OSI model? A. 8 B. 7 C. 6 D. 5 ANS: B. There are seven layers in the OSI model. These Include Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data, and Physical. 29. Which of the following terms best describes a computer that provides content to other computers such as a website or an application? A. Client B. Server C. Endpoint D. Router ANS: B. Server is a term that describes a computer that serves content or provides a service to another computer on a network. A client is a computer that accesses or uses the content or service provided by the server. An endpoint is a computing device on a network, which could include a server but is not the best answer. A router is a network device that routes traffic on a network. 30. What is the name of the seventh layer of the OSI model? A. Application B. Session C. Presentation D. Network ANS: A. The Application Layer is Layer 7 (the uppermost layer) of the OSI model. The order of the layers from top (Layer 7) to bottom (Layer 1) are Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical. 31. Which of the following attacks are most likely to be carried out by a botnet? A. Advanced persistent threat attack B. DDoS attack C. Trojan horse attack D. Backdoor attack ANS: B. A botnet is a group of computers under the control of an attacker, most often for a coordinated attacker such as a DDoS attack. Advanced persistent threat and backdoors are not specific types of attacks, but rather features of attacks. A trojan horse is a type of attack but unlikely to be carried out by a botnet. 32. What is the best description of the difference between a phishing email and a spear phishing e-mail? A. A phishing e-mail is sent to a specific person; a spear phishing email is sent to an entire company. B. A phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a spear phishing email is sent to specific recipients. C. A phishing e-mail is sent to an entire company; a spear phishing e-mail is sent to a specific person. D. A spear phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a phishing email is sent to specific recipients. ANS: A phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a spear phishing email is sent to specific recipients. A phishing e-mail is literally like going fishing—you cast a wide net randomly and you see what you get. Conversely spear phishing is literally like spearfishing—you have a specific target in mind, and you shoot the spear directly at it. A spear phishing e-mail is sent to a specific person or specific people or an organization. 33. Which of the following is not a true statement about a worm? A. It can replicate itself. B. It is a type of malware. C. It is a type of botnet. D. It does not require a host program to infect and deliver it to the victim system. ANS: C. A worm is not a type of botnet. A worm can replicate itself and is a type of malware, but since it isn’t a virus, it does not require a host program to infect and serve as the delivery mechanism. 34. A rainbow table attack seeks to mitigate the limitations of dictionary or brute force attacks by precomputing the hash of passwords and storing them for later comparison. A. True B. False ANS: A. The answer is true. Dictionary and brute force attacks take a lot of processing time and resources, whereas rainbow table attacks do the processing ahead of time and store the hashes in a table or database. 35. What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS? A. They both do the same thing. B. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS prevents the activity from happening in the first place. C. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS monitors system performance. D. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS detects malicious activity and takes action on it. ANS: D. An IDS, which stands for intrusion detection system, detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS, which stands for intrusion prevention system, detects malicious activity and takes action on it. 36. Joe is a cyber criminal who has targeted a web server for a potential cyberattack. Joe wants to know if the server has any unpatched vulnerabilities he might be able to exploit. Which of the following actions is Joe most likely to take? A. Launch a smurf attack against the target server. B. Run a vulnerability scan against the target server. C. Send a phishing e-mail to the target server. D. Send a spear phishing e-mail to the target server. ANS: B. The answer is to run a vulnerability scan, as that is the only one of the choices that will reveal vulnerabilities on the server. 37. __________________ is a method of attack where a hacker enters SQL commands into fields on a vulnerable web page. The commands are executed without proper authorization. A. Buffer overflow B. SQL injection C. HTTP response splitting D. Backdoor ANS: B. If a web server software does not properly check the data input by the user, it could allow an attacker to put SQL commands in the field, which are then executed by the SQL database without proper authorization. This is called a SQL injection attack. 38. Most cyber criminals would agree that _________________ are the weakest link in cybersecurity. A. Passwords B. Backdoors C. Laws D. People ANS: D. It is widely acknowledged that people are the weakest link in cybersecurity. Despite extensive progress in technical tools and controls, deliberate or accidental acts by people lead to the largest number of and most damaging security breaches. 39. A hacker uses a phishing attack to obtain a user’s credentials, access their company’s database, and steal proprietary information. This is an example of _______________. A. Denial of service B. Advanced persistent threat C. Extortion D. Data exfiltration ANS: D. The correct answer is data exfiltration, which is the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer or network. 40. A sophisticated cyber criminal gains access to a financial institution’s e-mail server, installs malware, and then over a period of weeks, moves to other servers and systems on the company’s network, installing other malware and tools, finding other credentials, stealing data, and scrubbing logs to cover her tracks. Which term best describes this type of activity? A. Denial of service attack B. Advanced persistent threat attack C. Extortion attack D. Website defacement attack ANS: B. During an advanced persistent threat attack, there is a sophisticated cyber criminal seeking to expand the attack over time, probing the network, finding more systems with vulnerabilities, exploiting them, and gaining unauthorized access to more and more systems and data, all the while doing things to cover their tracks. 41. Mary is a network engineer who wants to install a firewall in front of a database server to hide its IP address. What type of firewall should Mary choose? A. Proxy B. Packet filter C. Stateful/dynamic packet filter D. Database filter ANS: A. A proxy firewall impersonates the system at the other end of the connection and hides the IP address of the devices within the network it is protecting. 42. Antivirus software vendors use ______________ to keep up with the latest information about viruses and threats. A. Google B. National Vulnerability Database C. Threat intelligence D. National Security Agency ANS: C. Organizations and product vendors use threat intelligence from a variety of sources. By collecting and studying data about threats, vendors can prepare for and defend against them. 43. When leveraging a third-party cloud service provider, which of the following is always the responsibility of the provider? A. Data security B. Physical security of the datacenter C. Identity and access management controls D. Endpoint protection ANS: B. Physical security of the datacenter is always the responsibility of the cloud service provider. 44. An organization is utilizing a public cloud from a cloud service whose service offering allows the organization to use a framework to build and deploy custom applications. Which of the following cloud service models is being utilized? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. On-premises ANS: B. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides cloud service customers with development or application platforms to build and deploy applications. 45. An organization is using a cloud service provider to host their infrastructure. The cloud service provider manages the underlying infrastructure, and the organization manages the platforms and software (such as the OS, development tools, and applications). Which of the following cloud service models is being utilized? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. On-premises ANS: A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) provides customers with access to a pool of infrastructure resources such as network, server, and storage resources that can be virtually provisioned. The cloud service provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure, and the cloud service customer manages the platforms and software (such as OS, development tools, and applications) that run on the infrastructure. 46. An organization has built out a cloud environment in their own datacenter for exclusive use by their employees to allow other teams to provision and manage virtual resources. Which of the following cloud deployment models is this an example of? A. Public B. Private C. Community D. Hybrid ANS: B. A private cloud deployment model consists of computing infrastructure and resources that are dedicated for use by a single organization. 47. An organization is hosting applications in a private cloud environment and also making use of Amazon Web Services (AWS) to load-balance the traffic for applications if there is a spike in demand. Which of the following cloud deployment models is this an example of? A. Public B. Private C. Community D. Hybrid ANS: D. A hybrid cloud deployment model is a mix of the other models (such as a public and private model). 48. An organization is utilizing Google Mail (Gmail) as their e-mail service provider. Which of the following types of cloud service models is being utilized? A. SaaS B. PaaS C. IaaS D. On-premises ANS: A. Software as a service (SaaS) provides customers with access to an application hosted by the cloud service provider (such as an e-mail service). 49. Alice sends Bob a message encrypted with a private key. Bob decrypts the message with the same private key. Which of the following types of encryption is this an example of? A. Asymmetric B. Symmetric C. Hashing D. None of the above ANS: B. Symmetric encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption. This means that the sender and receiver of a message need to have a copy of the same key in order to encrypt/decrypt the message. 50. Which of the following is not a secure method of data deletion? A. Emptying the recycle bin on your computer desktop B. Physical destruction of a hard drive C. Zeroization D. Overwriting ANS: A. Pressing the delete key on a computer and emptying the recycle bin on your desktop are not secure methods of data destruction, as the data is not actually securely deleted from the hard drive. These actions simply tell the operating system that the location on the hard drive is free for use. 51. Which of the following can be used to create message digests? A. Symmetric encryption algorithms B. Asymmetric encryption algorithms C. Hash functions D. All of the above ANS: C. Hash functions transform information into fixed-length output known as a hash value, message digest, or fingerprint. 52. A security administrator is looking for ways to automate the monitoring of logs throughout the environment. Which of the following solutions would help provide automated monitoring capability? A. Regularly review the logs B. Store the logs on a centralized log server C. Implement a SIEM D. Implement a firewall ANS: C. Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) system is one example of how an organization can implement automated monitoring. A SIEM system is a tool that ingests logs from various sources, serves as a central secure log repository, and contains rules that alert on suspicious events identified in logs. 53. Which of the following types of encryption uses two keys: one for encryption and a separate key for decryption? A. Asymmetric B. Symmetric C. Hashing D. None of the above ANS: A. Asymmetric encryption uses two keys: a public key (for encryption) and a private key (for decryption). 54. As the new CISO of his organization, Joe decided to initiate a comprehensive set of scans. The scans reported that nearly all of his endpoints have known operating system vulnerabilities. What is the most likely root cause of this situation? A. The organization is the victim of an advanced persistent threat. B. The endpoints do not have up-to-date antimalware software installed. C. The endpoints have not been kept up-to-date with the latest security patches. D. Brute force attack. ANS: C. The most likely reason endpoints have known operating system vulnerabilities is they do not have the latest patches installed from the vendors. Poorly configured antimalware software or a brute force attack would not cause this, and an APT might be the result of this situation but not the cause of it. 55. A network administrator found that one of the firewalls was no longer configured in accordance with recommended settings from DISA as it once was. What is the most likely reason for this? A. The settings from DISA were incorrect. B. Configuration management procedures for the device were not followed. C. Privilege creep. D. Data integrity. ANS: B. The best answer is that it is most likely that someone changed a setting without the proper approval and documentation; therefore, CM procedures were not followed. 56. Mary isn’t sure if she is allowed to use her company-owned laptop to send messages to her friend on Facebook. To find out if she can, which policy should she refer to? A. AUP B. BYOD policy C. Data handling policy D. None of the above ANS: A. Of the choices provided, the AUP is the one most likely to provide guidance concerning whether or not Mary can use the company-owned laptop for nonbusiness use. 57. Of the policies listed, which one is most likely to provide guidance on connecting a home computer to the work network via VPN? A. AUP B. BYOD C. Data handling policy D. None of the above ANS: B. Of the choices provided, the BYOD policy is the best choice. The BYOD policy is used by organizations that want to allow their employees to use their personally owned devices to connect to the corporate network. 58. An employee notices a poster in the lunchroom reminding her about not writing down her passwords but instead to use the companyprovided password vault software. What is this an example of? A. Security awareness B. Security training C. Security policy D. Security testing ANS: A. The use of posters and reminders in the workplace is an example of security awareness. 59. What is the best reason to provide social engineering training to employees? A. To show people how to perform a social engineering attack B. So employees can report security violations to management C. To teach people what to look out for D. None of the above ANS: C. The correct answer is to show people what kinds of things they should look out for as a way to defend against social engineering attacks. 60. During which phase of the incident response process is the incident response plan developed and documented? A. Preparation B. Containment, eradication, and recovery C. Detection and analysis D. Post-incident activity ANS: A. The incident response plan is developed and documented during the preparation phase of the incident response process. 61. During which phase of the incident response process does the lessonslearned assessment take place? A. Detection and analysis B. Containment, eradication, and recovery C. Preparation D. Post-incident activity ANS: D. The lessons-learned assessment occurs during the post-incident activity phase of the incident response process. 62. A security analyst is reviewing log files from a system to determine if a security incident has occurred. This is an example of an activity that takes place in which of the following incident response process phases? A. Containment, eradication, and recovery B. Detection and analysis C. Preparation D. Post-incident activity ANS: B. Reviewing logs to determine if a security incident has occurred is an example of an activity that takes place in the detection and analysis phase of the incident response process. 63. In which phase of the incident response process would a security analyst recover a system from a backup? A. Preparation B. Detection and analysis C. Post-incident activity D. Containment, eradication, and recovery ANS: D. Recovering a system from backup would take place during the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of the incident response process. 64. What phase comes after the detection and analysis phase in the incident response process? A. Containment, eradication, and recovery. B. Preparation. C. Post-incident activity. D. Detection and analysis is the last phase of the process. ANS: A. The containment, eradication, and recovery phase comes after the detection and analysis phase of the incident response process. The process steps are Preparation -> Detection and Analysis -> Containment, Eradication, and Recovery -> Post-Incident Activity. 65. Carol is tasked with creating a business continuity plan for her organization. What should she do to determine which of her organization’s business functions should be restored in the event of an incident? A. Conduct a risk assessment. B. Interview key stakeholders throughout the organization. C. Calculate the MTD for each business function. D. Conduct a business impact analysis. ANS: D. The purpose of a business impact analysis is to determine which business functions should be restored after an incident. 67. Of the following which is the most likely reason(s) a business continuity program might fail? A. Failure to test the plan and procedures B. Failure to document activation procedures C. Failure to address the threats the organization is most likely to face D. All of the above ANS: D. Failure to test the plan and procedures, document activation procedures, and address likely threats are all reasons the business continuity program may fail. 68. Alice is responsible for designing her organization’s datacenter to provide resiliency in the event of a disaster. If a disaster occurs, she wants to have the new datacenter up and running within a few days, but she does not want to incur the cost of building a full datacenter with all equipment fully installed and configured. Which of the following options is the best choice for her situation? A. Hot site B. Warm site C. Cold site D. Tertiary site ANS: B. A warm site is a facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations but without the computing equipment itself. The warm site has power, HVAC, physical infrastructure, and possibly telecommunications and peripheral equipment. 69. Which of the following is the best example of a hot site? A. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations but without the computing equipment itself B. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed and configured C. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed but not configured D. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed and configured, but the equipment is not powered on ANS: B. A hot site is a facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment 70. Which of the following is the best example of a cold site? A. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations but without the computing equipment itself B. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed and configured C. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed but not configured D. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment installed and configured, but the equipment is not powered on ANS: A. A cold site is a facility that is configured with equipment suitable ================================================ FILE: Exam-voucher.md ================================================ ## Free Voucher 1. Goto: https://www.isc2.org/register-for-exam 2. Select CC Exam 3. Give All the details 4. Use the code: **CC1M12312024** to get the exam for free on checkout page ================================================ FILE: Most essential topics.md ================================================ ### Know These Essential Topics: - ISC2 Code of Ethics 4 Canons - CIA triad, IAAA, privacy, non-repudiation, and what attacks/controls are associated with each. - Know authentication types and what is associated with them. 1- Something you know, 2- Something you have, 3- Something you are. Know MFA and what authentication methods count as MFA (should be two or more distinct types of authentication) - Governance: Regulations, Standards, Policies, Procedures, Guidelines. Know what is mandatory and not. Know who creates what. Know PII, PHI, HIPAA, PCI-DSS, and GDPR. - Know ciphertext & plaintext, hashing, digital signatures, symmetric/asymmetric encryption, and public/private keys. - All types of cyberattacks (watch professor messer sec+ videos for this). Know which part(s) of the CIA triad is compromised in the attacks. Know social engineering (phishing, spear phishing, whaling, smishing, vishing). - Defense in Depth, Segregation of Duties, Least Privilege - Access Controls (DAC, MAC, RBAC, ABAC) and their advantages/disadvantages - Administrative, Technical, and especially your Physical controls. - Preventative, Corrective, Detective, Detterent, Recovery, and Compensating control types - Network Devices (Router, Switch, Firewall, IPS/IDS, NIDS/HIDS, SIEM/SOAR, CASB, VLAN, VPN, DMZ, NAC, Client, Server, etc.). Know IPV4 vs IPV6. Know to segment and isolate vulnerable IoT devices and what is microsegmentation. - Memorize OSI Model, how many layers, and what protocols/devices are in each layer. Know what data is called in different layers (bits, frames, packets, segments). Know TCP/IP as well. - IR (especially the steps), BCP, DRP what their purpose is, and what is in each of these. Know risk identification, assessment, and treatment (avoid, mitigate, transfer, accept). - Hardening and Configuration Management, Patch Management, Change Management, and components in each. - AUP, Password Policy, BYOD - Data Lifecycle and Destruction methods. Know classification vs labeling. Data retention. - Cloud models (IAAS, PAAS, SAAS), Cloud characteristics. Know what is a Public, Private, Hybrid, and Community cloud. Know what is an MSP. Know MOU/MOA and SLA. - Hot, Warm, Cold, Sites. Data backup types (full, differential incremental), and how to create redundancy. - Know the difference between environmental, natural, and manmade. Hope this helped you out and good luck! ================================================ FILE: README.md ================================================ # ISC2-CC-Study-Material-Dump-Questions ## Introduction The content in this repo is based on the self-paced course called Certified in Cybersecurity from (ISC)2, which is a preparation for (ISC)2 Certified in Cybersecurity. In this entry-level cybersecurity certification, the domains included are: Security Principles, Business Continuity, Disaster Recovery & Incident Response Concepts, Access Controls Concepts, Network Security and Security Operations. This Official (ISC)² Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) self-paced course provides a comprehensive review of information systems security concepts, industry best practices and terminology. The goal of this content is to provide students with the core knowledge necessary to be a successful entry-level cybersecurity practitioner in today’s world and review concepts outlined in the Official (ISC)² Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) Exam Outline. ## Step By Step to prepare for ISC2 CC exam 1. Start The ISC2 CC course 2. Read the Resources by ISC2 3. Check the notes and other resources in this repo 4. Try the dump questions 5. Go to exam hall :) ## Repo objectives 1. Discuss the foundational concepts of cybersecurity principles.  2. Recognize foundational security concepts of information assurance.  3. Define risk management terminology and summarize the process.  4. Relate risk management to personal or professional practices.  5. Classify types of security controls.  6. Distinguish between policies, procedures, standards, regulations and laws.  7. Demonstrate the relationship among governance elements.  8. Analyze appropriate outcomes according to the canons of the (ISC)² Code of Ethics when given examples.  9. Practice the terminology of and review security policies.  10. Explain how organizations respond to, recover from and continue to operate during unplanned disruptions.  11. Recall the terms and components of incident response.  12. Summarize the components of a business continuity plan.  13. Identify the components of disaster recovery.  14. Practice the terminology and review concepts of business continuity, disaster recovery and incident response.  15. Select access controls that are appropriate in a given scenario.  16. Relate access control concepts and processes to given scenarios.  17. Compare various physical access controls.  18. Describe logical access controls.  19. Practice the terminology and review concepts of access controls.  20. Explain the concepts of network security.  21. Recognize common networking terms and models.  22. Identify common protocols and port and their secure counterparts.  23. Identify types of network (cyber) threats and attacks.  24. Discuss common tools used to identify and prevent threats.  25. Identify common data center terminology.  26. Recognize common cloud service terminology.  27. Identify secure network design terminology.  28. Practice the terminology and review concepts of network security.  29. Explain concepts of security operations.  30. Discuss data handling best practices.  31. Identify key concepts of logging and monitoring.  32. Summarize the different types of encryption and their common uses.  33. Describe the concepts of configuration management.  34. Explain the application of common security policies.  35. Discuss the importance of security awareness training.  36. Practice the terminology and review concepts of network operations. ## Keywords: ISC2, CC, ISC2 CC Dump, ISC2 CC Dump Questionk, ISC2 Questions, Cybersecurity, Security, Principles, Business Continuity, Disaster Recovery, Incident Response, Access Controls, Network Security, Security Operations ================================================ FILE: Suggested Another Course.md ================================================ ### Suggested Another Course - https://quizlet.com/user/carla_jenkins3/folders/isc2-certified-in-cybersecurity/sets ================================================ FILE: Suggested Youtube Playlist.md ================================================ ## Free Youtube Playlist 1. https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL0hT6hgexlYw-k6GxQf_DIAPdc96T2MP- 2. https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLKbf3fxddlUHuoUGGOSe1onIObJDfpSbF ================================================ FILE: practice_exam.md ================================================ ### Practice Exam You can take the practice exam at: https://certpreps.com/cc/